Apologetics

Why should we pray that God would not lead us into temptation when God cannot tempt anyone? MATTHEW 6:13

MATTHEW 6:13—Why should we pray that God would not lead us into temptation when God cannot tempt anyone? PROBLEM: The Bible says emphatically, “God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does He Himself tempt anyone” (James 1:13). Why, then, does Jesus ask us here to pray, “and lead us not into temptation”? SOLUTION: God can

Why should we pray that God would not lead us into temptation when God cannot tempt anyone? MATTHEW 6:13 قراءة المزيد »

If Jesus said prayer should be in private, why does the Bible commend public prayer? MATTHEW 6:6

MATTHEW 6:6—If Jesus said prayer should be in private, why does the Bible commend public prayer? PROBLEM: In this text, Jesus urged His disciples to pray in private, saying, “When you pray, go into your room, and when you have shut your door, pray to your Father who is in the secret place.” However, elsewhere

If Jesus said prayer should be in private, why does the Bible commend public prayer? MATTHEW 6:6 قراءة المزيد »

Should believers literally give anything to anyone who asks? MATTHEW 5:42

MATTHEW 5:42—Should believers literally give anything to anyone who asks? PROBLEM: Here Jesus clearly said, “Give to him who asks you, and from him who wants to borrow from you do not turn away” (cf. Luke 6:30). But, if we took this literally we would have nothing to provide for our own families. Also, Paul

Should believers literally give anything to anyone who asks? MATTHEW 5:42 قراءة المزيد »

Is hell the grave or a place of conscious torment? MATTHEW 5:29

MATTHEW 5:29—Is hell the grave or a place of conscious torment? PROBLEM: Jesus refers here to the “body” being “cast into hell,” and the psalmist speaks of “bones” being “scattered at the mouth of hell [sheol]” (Ps. 141:7, kjv). Jacob talked about his “gray hairs” being brought down to hell (Gen. 42:38, kjv; cf. 44:29,

Is hell the grave or a place of conscious torment? MATTHEW 5:29 قراءة المزيد »

Why does Matthew incorrectly quote Isaiah? MATTHEW 4:14–16

MATTHEW 4:14–16—Why does Matthew incorrectly quote Isaiah? PROBLEM: Matthew does not seem to quote Isaiah 9:1–2 accurately. Rather, he seems to have changed it. SOLUTION: It is not necessary to quote a passage verbatim to cite it accurately. Matthew does not distort the meaning of this passage. He simply condenses or summarizes it. To paraphrase

Why does Matthew incorrectly quote Isaiah? MATTHEW 4:14–16 قراءة المزيد »