Apologetics

openscroll1gen 1 2 GENESIS 2:19—How can we explain the difference in the order of creation events between Genesis 1 and 2?

GENESIS 2:19—How can we explain the difference in the order of creation events between Genesis 1 and 2?

GENESIS 2:19—How can we explain the difference in the order of creation events between Genesis 1 and 2? PROBLEM: Genesis 1 declares that animals were created before humans, but Genesis 2:19 seems to reverse this, saying, “the Lord God formed every beast of the field … and brought them to Adam to see what he

GENESIS 2:19—How can we explain the difference in the order of creation events between Genesis 1 and 2? قراءة المزيد »

Why didn’t Adam die the day he ate the forbidden fruit, as God

GENESIS 2:17—Why didn’t Adam die the day he ate the forbidden fruit, as God said he would?

GENESIS 2:17—Why didn’t Adam die the day he ate the forbidden fruit, as God said he would? PROBLEM: God said to Adam, “in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die” (Gen. 2:17). But Adam lived to be 930 years old after he sinned (Gen. 5:5). SOLUTION: The word “day” (yom) does

GENESIS 2:17—Why didn’t Adam die the day he ate the forbidden fruit, as God said he would? قراءة المزيد »

God understanding genesis 1 2 work of creation 1 2 GENESIS 2:4—Why does this chapter use the term “Lord God” rather than “God” as in chapter one?

GENESIS 2:4—Why does this chapter use the term “Lord God” rather than “God” as in chapter one?

GENESIS 2:4—Why does this chapter use the term “Lord God” rather than “God” as in chapter one? PROBLEM: Many critics insist that Genesis 2 must have been written by someone different from the one who wrote Genesis 1, since Genesis 2 uses a different name for God. However, conservative scholars have always insisted that Moses

GENESIS 2:4—Why does this chapter use the term “Lord God” rather than “God” as in chapter one? قراءة المزيد »

genesis book of beginnings 1 2 GENESIS 1:26—Why does the Bible use the plural “us” when God refers to Himself?

GENESIS 1:26—Why does the Bible use the plural “us” when God refers to Himself?

GENESIS 1:26—Why does the Bible use the plural “us” when God refers to Himself? PROBLEM: Orthodox Christian and Jewish scholars maintain that God is one. In fact, the historic confession of the faith of Israel is taken from Deuteronomy 6:4 which says, “Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is One!” However, if

GENESIS 1:26—Why does the Bible use the plural “us” when God refers to Himself? قراءة المزيد »

MATTHEW 2:23—Didn’t Matthew make a mistake by claiming a prophecy that is not found in the OT?

MATTHEW 2:23—Didn’t Matthew make a mistake by claiming a prophecy that is not found in the OT? PROBLEM: Matthew claims that Jesus moved to Nazareth to live, in order “that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene” (Matt. 2:23). However, no such prophecy is found in

MATTHEW 2:23—Didn’t Matthew make a mistake by claiming a prophecy that is not found in the OT? قراءة المزيد »